Stephan Hennig
2014-10-01 16:06:23 UTC
Hi,
in the TeXbook, the answer to exercise 5.1 (the shelfful exercise)
contains a sentence
Appendix H points out that ligatures are put into a hyphenated
word that contains no ?explicit kerns,? and an italic correction
is an explicit kern.
I didn't find the place in appendix H the quote refers to, so pointers
would be appreciated.
Anyway, as I understand the quote, ligatures won't be inserted in words
that do contain explicit kerns. That is, to suppress multiple ligatures
within a word, it should be enough to insert just /one/ italic
correction (between two of the ligature candidates). Though, a test
turns out that this is not the case.
shelf\/fulfi
\bye
outputs the word with two separate letters f but the fi ligature
applied. Could anybody please shed some light on the quote above?
Best regards,
Stephan Hennig
in the TeXbook, the answer to exercise 5.1 (the shelfful exercise)
contains a sentence
Appendix H points out that ligatures are put into a hyphenated
word that contains no ?explicit kerns,? and an italic correction
is an explicit kern.
I didn't find the place in appendix H the quote refers to, so pointers
would be appreciated.
Anyway, as I understand the quote, ligatures won't be inserted in words
that do contain explicit kerns. That is, to suppress multiple ligatures
within a word, it should be enough to insert just /one/ italic
correction (between two of the ligature candidates). Though, a test
turns out that this is not the case.
shelf\/fulfi
\bye
outputs the word with two separate letters f but the fi ligature
applied. Could anybody please shed some light on the quote above?
Best regards,
Stephan Hennig